How Far Were The Terms Of The Treaty Of Versailles Justified?

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to contemplate the several interpretations one can have about the War Guilt Clause (art. 231) on the Treaty of Versailles, the background in which it was created and the consequences its term had since it can change our minds or ratify them about how much of a guilt Germany had on World War One, and how does this determine the justification of the terms based mainly upon the Article 231.

If we recognize German invasion of Russia, Belgium and France, which "started" the War, it is easy to say that she was to be blamed. However this ignores the fact that Russian army was in German frontier without any previous German direct attack, and was sent an ultimatum, which wasn't answered, and therefore meant Germany declaring war on Russia and her ally France. Next the declaration of Britain happened because of Belgium invasion, a clear violation of treaties that previously established its neutrality. This leads us to the Schieleffen plan: its existence is often seen as the pure ...

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it that way when the Treaty was made, the War Guilt Clause was "justified" at that time.

So the problem when creating the War Guilt Clause, and the other terms of the treaty as well was the intention behind it, by the three main powers in the conference. This happened mainly because the aims of the three countries were completely different and in fact they weren't satisfied at all in the end. Clemenceau had the aspiration for tearing Germany down so it wouldn't be considered a threat anymore; its opposite force, Wilson, had so idealistic principles (the fourteen points) that made even the creation of the Treaty a naive event. As Lloyd George himself described them: "one of whom ...

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